Let’s look at three things:
- what \frac{4}{\sqrt{\Phi}} actually equals
- how close is it to π
- why π and e cannot be expressed through the golden ratio
1 - We calculate strictly
The Golden Ratio:
\Phi = \frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2} \approx 1.6180339887
Then:
\sqrt{\Phi} \approx 1.2720196495
Now:
\frac{4}{\sqrt{\Phi}} \approx 3.1446055110
Present value:
\pi \approx 3.141592653589793
Difference:
\frac{4}{\sqrt{\Phi}} - \pi \approx 0.0030128574
Error ≈ 0.096%
It's just an approximation. There is no equality.
2 - Why does intimacy occur?
Because:
- π ≈ 3.14
- 4 / 1.27 ≈ 3.14
This is a numerical coincidence arising from a combination of:
- √5
- Divisions
- Small Numeric Ranges
The mathematics of such coincidences are complete.
For example:
\frac{22}{7} = 3.142857...
Also close to π. But that doesn’t make 22/7 “true π.”
3The main question is whether π Expressed through Φ?
The short answer: No.
And here's why.
Fact 1: Φ — Algebraic Number
Φ is the solution of the equation:
x^2 - x - 1 = 0
So Φ is an algebraic number of degree 2.
All expressions constructed from Φ using:
- Additions
- Multiplication
- Divisions
- Roots
They are algebraic numbers.
Fact 2: π — Transcendent number
Lindeman's theorem (1882):
π is transcendental.
This means:
π is not the root of any polynomial with rational coefficients.
Key conclusion
Any formula of the form:
\text - expression from ? \Phi
It gives an algebraic number.
But π is transcendental.
Algebraic ≠ Transcendent.
Consequently:
\pi \neq \frac{4}{\sqrt{\Phi}}
in principle.
Not "almost," not "possible," but mathematically impossible.
4 - Same with e
e is also transcendental (proved by Hermit in 1873).
Therefore, expressions through Φ, even complex ones, cannot give an exact value of e.
5 - Why are such designs popular?
Because:
- The golden ratio is visually beautiful.
- In the division 4 on √Φ The number is close to 3.14.
- The human brain loves harmonic coincidences.
But mathematics does not work on sensations, but on evidence.
If you want, we can go deeper:
- Proof of Transcendence π
- Why does π necessarily appear in a circle geometry?
- or analyze how does π arise from the limit
Let us consider two questions:
- Why does π inevitably occur in a circle geometry?
- Why π is transcendental (in the logic of proof)
I. Why π is inevitable
1️⃣ Definition π
π is the limit of the ratio of the circumference to its diameter:
\pi = \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{P_n}{D}
where P_n is the perimeter of the inscribed regular n-gon.
This is not a “conventional” constant.
It appears as the limit of the sequence of purely geometric objects.
2 - Geometric inevitability
Take the unit circle:
x^2 + y^2 = 1
Circle area:
S = \int_{-1}^{1} \sqrt{1 - x^2} \, dx \times 2
This is an integral, which is strictly equal to:
S = \pi
That is, π arises from analysis, not from aesthetics.
3Why it cannot be replaced π by another number?
Because if you replace π with:
\frac{4}{\sqrt{\Phi}}
then:
- The integral formula is broken.
- The square will no longer coincide.
- Trigonometry is destroyed.
- sine and cosine will cease to be solutions of equation y'' + y = 0
π is not just a number from geometry.
This is the basis of the period of harmonic oscillations.
II. Why π is transcendental
Now a big part.
1️⃣ Algebraic numbers
A number is called algebraic if it is the root of the polynomial:
a_n x^n + \dots + a_1 x + a_0 = 0
with rational coefficients.
Φ - algebraic (degree 2).
2Lindeman's Theorem (1882)
If α is a non-zero algebraic number,
then e^-\alpha-- transcendent.
3 - Application to π
From Euler's formula:
e^{i\pi} + 1 = 0
That is:
e^{i\pi} = -1
But −1 — Algebraic Number.
Suppose that π is algebraic.
Then i\pi is algebraic.
According to Lindemann's theorem:
e^{i\pi}
It must be transcendent.
But we know that:
e^{i\pi} = -1
a −1 algebraic.
Controversy.
Consequently:
\pi \text
III. What it means
- π cannot be expressed as:
- through roots
- through the golden section
- through a finite algebraic formula
- Any expression after Φ will remain algebraic.
- Therefore, “exact formulas π through Φ” are impossible in principle.
IV. Deep Meaning
π appears because:
- A circle is a geometric manifestation of periodicity.
- harmonic functions associated with 2π
- Analysis and geometry converge at one point.
It's not a coincidence.
This is structural inevitability.
If you want, we can sort out:
- why sinus inevitably has a period of 2π
- or how π arises from the Taylor series
- or how π, e and complex numbers are related in a deeper structure